‘[I]f, as we believe, the second chamber should remain essentially a revising chamber and if, as we also believe, the primacy of the House of Commons is to be maintained, the argument that such a chamber can only be effective and have proper legitimacy if it is wholly or mainly elected is no more than an assertion.’ (Archbishops of Canterbury and York, Written Evidence to the Joint Committee on the Draft House of Lords Reform Bill (2012), [12])
I n light of this argument, does a legislative chamber have to derive its legitimacy from democratic election?
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